Christ Death Foreknowledge or Predestination?

Was Christ death on the cross foreknown to God, or did he choose the method and the means. Some people would call foreknowledge or (middle knowledge), that God would choose according to how he foresaw men act. So his actions are dependant upon men’s actions so as not to interfere with mans free will. I have even heard some say that he works things out as they unfold, but I meddle not with these people, because that is so perpsoterous. While predestination or (sovereignty) says that God chose the people the place and the time, without first consulting men. Each view looks at God differently. One says that he checks with men first and then guides the hands of time, and the other says that he decrees from his Heavenly Kingdom without consulting men first and that he is in complete control.

This makes a huge difference in how that we view Christ death on the cross. Was it man who took Christ life or was it the Father who gave him over to be crucified by the hands of man? I will make some observation on the death of Christ and challenge you to think about Christ death and who is really in charge. I was looking on the Howling Coyote this morning and I noticed that Mr. Spurgeon wrote on the subject somewhat already, so I might steal some verses from him and maybe a quote or two if it will fit the picture.

Act 2:23 (ESV) "This Jesus, delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men."

Act 4:24-28 (ESV) "And when they heard it, they lifted their voices together to God and said, "Sovereign Lord, who made the heaven and the earth and the sea and everything in them, who through the mouth of our father David, your servant, said by the Holy Spirit, "'Why did the Gentiles rage, and the peoples plot in vain? The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers were gathered together, against the Lord and against his Anointed'-- for truly in this city there were gathered together against your holy servant Jesus, whom you anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, to do whatever your hand and your plan had predestined to take place"

Now we all are aware that by the hands of man was Christ crucified, he didn't nail the nails into his hands himself, but by the hands of wicked men was he crucified. I will lay out two scenarios for you and maybe they will make Christ death a little clearer or maybe just leave you confused.

Predestination or Foreknowledge?

When the prophets of ole were inspired to write about Christ death for the sins, and the apostle who wrote of it after Christ death, where did they get the inspiration? Well we know that they were inspired by God:

2Pe 1:21 "For no prophecy was ever produced by the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit. "

So then we must ask where did God get the inspiration for Christ death. or did he determine it according to his infinite wisdom? See to many times we want to say well God is in complete control here, but he is not in complete control here. Well this proves to cause many conflicting problems. If God must use middle knowledge or how someone will act to know how things will go then, he will have to do that for all events. Or he is not the same yesterday today and forever. That is a plain and simple fact.

Mal 3:6 (ESV) "For I the LORD do not change; therefore you, O children of Jacob, are not consumed."

Rom 9:19 "Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?"

This is the scenario for Christ death if God was inspired by men about Christ death.

When God was inspiring the Prophets in the Old Testament, did he have to look into the future to know how to inspire the Prophets? That would say well God looked into the future and realized that all the inns would be full so now he can for surety inspire his prophet that Christ will be born in a manger. Did he look into the future and see how men would kill Christ and inspire David in Psalms 22 to write about his death from what he learned in seeing the future? Also think about this, did God have to learn about all of the miracles that Christ would perform? If we are going to hold to some form of middle knowledge, that God has to learn from me in order to know how to run what he created then we must follow it to the fullest. What we end up left with is a God, who must first consult with men. So truly the passage in Romans 9:19 should read "who hath resisted men's will."

Now here is the scenario if God is sovereign.

John 1:1-2 (ESV) "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God."

Before the world even began God already had every thing planned out, and it was all in perfect order. When God inspired the Old Testament Prophets, he simply inspired them through the Holy Spirit of the things which he should suffer, and what would be accomplished through his death. Everything was so perfectly planned out and done with such infinite wisdom that it is above and beyond the comprehension of men. God instituted a will that is perfectly decreed by him, that he does not interfere with men’s free actions. That men do just as he decrees, but they do it of there own free will. God decreed the means and methods that Christ would come into this world and leave this world. I like how Alber Barnes puts it in his commentary on Acts 2:23:

determinate counsel - The word implies that the death of Jesus was resolved by God before it took place. And this truth is established by all the predictions made in the Old Testament, and by the Saviour himself. God was not compelled to give up his Son. There was no claim on him for it. He had a right, therefore, to determine when and how it should be done. The fact, moreover, that this was predicted, shows that it was fixed or resolved on. No event can be foretold, evidently, unless it be certain that it will take place. The event, therefore, must in some way be fixed or resolved on beforehand.
A.B.

Forknowledge -In this place the word is used to denote that the delivering up of Jesus was something more than a bare or naked decree. It implies that God did it according to his foresight of what would be the best time, place, and manner of its being done. It was not the result merely of will; it was will directed by a wise foreknowledge of what would be best. And this is the case with all the decrees of God. It follows from this that the conduct of the Jews was foreknown. God was not disappointed in anything respecting their treatment of his Son, nor will he be disappointed in any of the actions of people. Notwithstanding the wickedness of the world, his counsel shall stand, and he will do all his pleasure.
A.B.

He neither consulted men for his permission, and neither did he infringe on his will.

Isa 45:21-22 (ESV) "Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; a just God and a Saviour; there is none beside me. Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else."

Isa 43:13 (ESV) "Also henceforth I am he; there is none who can deliver from my hand; I work, and who can turn it back?"

Isa 55:8-9 (ESV) "For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, declares the LORD. For as the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways and my thoughts than your thoughts."

Act 15:18 (KJV) "Known unto God are all his works from the beginning of the world."